Best GED Language Arts Practice Test

Best GED Language Arts Practice Test 2021

Visit our website to take the free GED Language Arts practice test 2021 or GED practice test 2021 for other GED sections to get ready for your exam!

GED is the abbreviation for General Education Development or General Education Diploma. Individuals who did not complete high school and obtain their high school diploma can take the GED exam. After they successfully pass the GED exam, they can get a high school equivalency diploma that enables them to enroll in higher education or get a job. 

The GED Reasoning Through Language Arts (RLA) is one of the four sections (also called four tests) of the GED exam, and it aims to test your reading comprehension and grammatical skills. Try our free GED Language Arts practice test 2021 or take the GED practice test for other sections on our website to get ready for your exam!

Our GED Language Arts Practice Test

Benefits of Taking Practice Tests

It’s extremely important to take practice tests regularly. When you practice tests, you can learn not only about the subject fields that you’ll have to work on but also about which areas you already master. Then, you can go over the topics that you already know and spend more time on your weaker points. By doing this, you definitely get a higher score on your GED exam. 

Below is 10 sample questions of the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts test for you to practice. After answering these questions, you can see the correct answers and very detailed explanations. Let’s practice them now: 

Question 1: Read the supporting details then answer the following question. In regards to the passage, which of the following statements best answers when bearded irises bloom?

Paragraph: Bearded irises are named for the fuzz on their hanging petals, or “falls,” and have grown with the times. Still the stalwarts of spring gardens, these old-fashioned favorites are available in myriad modern hybrids that offer a full spectrum of heights and hues. Many varieties, such as Best Bet and Immortality, are bred to rebloom after a summer resting period. Some bearded irises, like the Batik and Red Hawk, are sweetly scented. By selecting the varieties that flower at different times, you can enjoy iris blooms for several weeks, from April to June, year after year. Irises pair beautifully with other spring perennials, including allium, baptisia, and columbine. Even after the bloom has finished, the spiky, gray-green foliage is a nice textural contrast to other perennials.

A. Different varieties flower at different times

B. Only during the months that they are planted

C. They have to have full sun to bloom

D. They only bloom from April to June

Answer: A

Explanation: This is found in the first sentence of the second paragraph. You can eliminate “only during the months that they are planted,” as the passage does not state or imply this. It is true that they have to have full sun to bloom, but that does not answer when they bloom. Irises do bloom from April to June, but that also depends on what varieties are planted, as some varieties can rebloom after the summer resting period.

Question 2: Read the supporting details then correct the sentence below. Sentence 8: Eventually his design became the norm for all roads everywhere. If the beginning of sentence 8 was rewritten with “The norm for all roads” what should be the next words?

Paragraph: (1) The road builders of the late 1800s depended solely on stone, gravel, and sand for construction. (2) Water would be used as a binder to give some unity to the road surface. (3) John Metcalfe, a Scot born in 1717, built about 180 miles of roads in Yorkshire, England (even though he was blind). (4) His well-drained roads were built with three layers: large stones; excavated road material; and a layer of gravel. (5) Modern tarred roads were the result of the work of two Scottish engineers, Thomas Telford and John Loudon McAdam. (6) Telford designed the system of raising the foundation of the road in the center to act as a drain for water. (7) Thomas Telford improved the method of building roads with broken stones by analyzing stone thickness, road traffic, road alignment, and gradient slopes. (8) Eventually his design became the norm for all roads everywhere. (9) John Loudon McAdam designed roads using broken stones laid in symmetrical, tight patterns and covered with small stones to create a hard surface. (10) McAdam’s design, called “macadam roads,” provided a great advancement in road construction.

A. are his design

B. is his design

C. was his design

D. were his design

Answer: C

Explanation: The sentence is written in the past tense; therefore, the verb needs to be in the past tense as well. The subject of the sentence is singular (design); therefore, the subject needs to not only be in the past tense but in the singular as well. Thus, the appropriate option is: “was his design.”

Question 3: Read the supporting details then correct the sentence below. Sentence 6: The name Magee-Hale Park-O-Meter Company was later changed to the P.O.M. company, a trademarked name made from the initials of Park-O-Meter. Which of the following changes should be made to correct sentence 6?

Paragraph: (1) Carlton Cole Magee invented the first parking meter in 1932 in response to the growing problem of parking congestion. (2) She patented it in 1935 (US patent #2,118,318) and started the Magee-Hale Park-O-Meter Company to manufacture his parking meters. (3) These early parking meters were produced at factories in Oklahoma, City, and Tulsa, Oklahoma. (4) The first was installed in 1935 in Oklahoma City. (5) The meters are sometimes met with resistance from citizen groups; vigilantes from Alabama and Texas attempted to destroy the meters en masse. (6) The name Magee-Hale Park-O-Meter Company was later changed to the P.O.M. company, a trademarked name made from the initials of Park-O-Meter. (7) In 1992 P.O.M. began marketing and selling the first fully electronic parking meter, the patented “APM” Advanced Parking Meter, with features such as a free-fall coin chute and a choice of solar or battery power.

A. Change “a” to “an”

B. Change “company” to “Company”

C. Change “name” to “names”

D. Change “to” to “too”

Answer: B

Explanation: In order to correct sentence 6, you would need to change “company” to “Company.” The word “company” is being used as part of the organization’s official name; therefore it should be capitalized. If “company” were to be used within the sentence, it would not be capitalized. The other answer options are not options that would make the sentence grammatically correct.

Question 4: Read the supporting details then answer the following question. From the article excerpt, you can determine that the article’s subject is about:

Paragraph: If you smoke, quit. You should also get in the habit of exercising, because exercise strengthens the heart and blood vessels, reduces stress, and has been shown to reduce blood pressure while also boosting HDL (good) cholesterol levels. Numerous studies done in recent decades indicate that drinking alcohol in moderation may actually reduce the risk of heart disease. But more than one drink a day for women, or more than one to two a day for men, is not recommended. Learning to relax may help prevent and treat heart disease. While success varies from person to person, stress-reduction techniques have been shown to reduce high blood pressure, heart arrhythmias, and emotional responses such as anxiety, anger, and hostility that have been linked to coronary heart disease, angina, and heart attack. The choice of a relaxation technique is up to you. Some that have proved beneficial are meditation, progressive relaxation, yoga, and biofeedback training.

A. Exercise

B. Heart disease

C. Smoking

D. Stress

Answer: B

Explanation: You may have thought that the article was about smoking since that is how the passage starts out; however, when you continue reading, you will find that the article is based on reducing your risk of heart disease. Reducing your stress and exercising are also methods of reducing your risk of heart disease.

 

Question 5: Read the supporting details then answer the following question. According to the passage, which of the following options may help prevent and treat heart disease?

Paragraph: If you smoke, quit. You should also get in the habit of exercising, because exercise strengthens the heart and blood vessels, reduces stress, and has been shown to reduce blood pressure while also boosting HDL (good) cholesterol levels. Numerous studies done in recent decades indicate that drinking alcohol in moderation may actually reduce the risk of heart disease. But more than one drink a day for women, or more than one to two a day for men, is not recommended. Learning to relax may help prevent and treat heart disease. While success varies from person to person, stress-reduction techniques have been shown to reduce high blood pressure, heart arrhythmias, and emotional responses such as anxiety, anger, and hostility that have been linked to coronary heart disease, angina, and heart attack. The choice of a relaxation technique is up to you. Some that have proved beneficial are meditation, progressive relaxation, yoga, and biofeedback training.

A. Drinking

B. Relaxing

C. Smoking

D. Yawning

Answer: B

Explanation: Relaxing is the option that may help prevent and treat heart disease. This answer is found in the first sentence of the passage’s second paragraph. The passage informs the reader that smokers should quit smoking; therefore, smoking would not help prevent and treat heart disease. The passage informs the reader that drinking in moderation could reduce the risk of heart disease, but it does not imply that it will treat heart disease. Yawning is not mentioned in the passage, so it can be eliminated.

 

Question 6: The author’s opening paragraph leads the reader to view Bill Gates as:

Paragraph: Bill Gates and the History of Great Inventions

Frequently in history, there have been men and women who profited from new inventions. In the late 1800s and early 1900s, new inventions turned up regularly. The typewriter, the telephone, and the internal combustion engine gave forward-thinking businessmen reasons to cheer. Alexander Graham Bell (telephone), Thomas Edison (the incandescent lightbulb), Andrew Carnegie (innovations in the steel industry), to name just a few, saw the opportunities that important discoveries provided. These people were made enormously wealthy by the discoveries of the industrial age. Many years later, Bill Gates, now the chairman and CEO of Microsoft, followed that model. When Gates was born in 1955, no one owned a personal computer. You couldn’t buy one and carry it home. Yet after being introduced to the enormous computers that were mostly contained in scientific research labs and government offices at that time, he immediately understood that everyone would want and need a personal computer. As a youngster, Bill Gates was fun-loving and attention-seeking, so much so that his parents transferred him to an academically demanding school in hopes of focusing his energy. There he excelled in reading, math, and science. Doing well in this difficult school got him positive attention. While Gates was at Lakeside School, a Seattle computer company offered to provide computer time for the students. The school purchased a teletype terminal for students to use. Gates became totally absorbed in learning what a computer could do. At 13 years old, he began programming computers. He spent much of his free time working on the terminal. Some of that time was spent writing a tic-tac-toe program in BASIC computer language, which allowed users to play against the computer. While using an existing computer, Gates honed his programming skills and developed his new ideas. At Lakeside School, Bill met Paul Allen, who was 2 years older. Both boys had such enthusiasm for the computer that they became great friends. However, they were two very different people. Allen was more reserved and shy. Bill was energetic and at times aggressive. Nonetheless, the two spent much of their free time together working on programs. Later, Gates left Harvard University to form Microsoft, the most successful software company in the world, with Allen.

A. A great inventor but a terrible businessman.

B. A rowdy but brilliant schoolboy.

C. One of the most successful businessmen in American history, a descendant of the men mentioned.

D. The inventor of the telephone and the telegraph.

Answer: D

Explanation: By starting the article with information about American tycoons, the author places Gates in their company. All other answers are incorrect details.

 

Question 7: Which correction should be made to sentence (8) in the attached text?

Paragraph: 

A:

(1) Believe it or not, it is more than possible to make a film in 48 hours. You won’t get a feature-length blockbuster for your efforts, but you will get a short film of around 5 minutes and a lot of memories because it’s such a unique experience. This how-to guide serves as a rough introduction to making a 48-hour film. (2) The first thing you probably kneed to do is to go to the store and buy some caffeine because you won’t be getting much sleep. Before you begin, it is important to evaluate your assets. (3) See what you have, available to you in terms of locations, equipment, crew, and cast. Successful films don’t always require fancy sets, exotic locations, or A-list actors; some of the most poignant films are those the audience can really connect with because they can relate to the characters and their struggles. You will need the technology necessary to film and record both the audio and visual and the programs to edit and compile everything into a completed masterpiece. Many of these programs can be found online and are free or low-cost. 

B:

(4) Once the clock has started ticking, the first thing to do is to create a story. Keep in mind the assets you have axes to. (5) You should then right a screenplay and a shot plan—examples of these can be easily found online. When all is set, it’s time to shoot your film. (6) You don’t need anything overly advanced to begin, although, it’s probably recommended that you record your visual and audio content onto different devices. The audio portion of the shoot is just as, if not more important than the visual or picture portion. Most video cameras that amateur filmmakers have access to do not have sufficient audio recording capabilities. Environmental factors including wind and background noise can also affect audio quality. So, recording audio and visual on different devices allows you to set up the best environment for audio recordings to ensure it’s clear and easy to understand. 

C:

(7) After filming, you have to get your footage onto the computer. How you go about doing this depends on the type of camera you have used. (8) Next is the editing process, which may take up the majority of your time. Unfortunately, it is very unlikely that your editing process will be less then 18 hours long. (9) One of the first tasks you may encounter in post production is to synchronize your sound clips with your visual ones. You then have to edit, which can be done in any program, ranging from free software to professional programs with monthly fees. (10) When you have finished, all you have to do is to render and export, and you got yourself a 48-hour film! Now it’s time to set up your film’s release and invite all of your friends and family to a viewing party!

  1. Change the comma after “editing process” to a colon.
  2. Change the word “then” to “than.”
  3. Delete the comma after “Unfortunately, . . .”.
  4. No changes are necessary.

Answer: B

Explanation: Confusing the usage of then and than is a common error in writing. The word then denotes a time sequence, while the word than is used when comparing two things. The comma after “Unfortunately” is correct because the word is used as a sentence adverb. A sentence adverb is a word or phrase that is followed by a comma and which expresses the writer’s attitude or opinion to the words in the sentence. Examples of other sentence adverbs are “obviously” or “sadly.” The comma is also used correctly after “editing process”.

 

Question 8: Which correction should be made to sentence (7) in the attached text?

Paragraph: (1) A couple of years ago, I heard of new shop in my neighborhood selling sports equipment. (2) Being quiet an avid player of both soccer and tennis, I decided to check it out—and I’ve been a regular customer ever since. In fact, shopping in this store has encouraged me to try other sports and, as a result, I have picked up running, racquetball, and bocce ball. This is my go-to store for finding all the equipment I need to play all of the sports I love. (3) Inside it is very expensive; in fact, it is so large that their slogan is “Aisles for Miles!” And it’s no exaggeration; the store is located in a former warehouse and their selection is extensive. (4) But from my first visit to my fiftieth, I never had trouble finding what I needed as the store is so well organized, everything is well marked. (5) The customer service is also excellent; every time I have needed assistance, I have had it within two minutes. The staff know what they are talking about and can guide customers to select the appropriate equipment for their activities without spending money on gear they don’t need. The salespeople are athletes themselves, so they understand what is needed and what is just hype. (6) The staff are friendly, the quality of the products are good, and the shopping experience in general is thoroughly enjoyable. There are sometimes in-store demonstrations and they encourage customers to try products out before they purchase anything. I’ve tried golf clubs, archery sets, and badminton gear at the store. (7) The one time I did have to return a product I was given in store credit and the whole transaction was done without complaint. It was quick and easy and there were no questions asked. Customer service and satisfaction are important to them, so they will do what it takes to make a customer happy and keep them coming back. (8) When I visit the store, my first stop is usually the shoe department. They have an extensive selection, with everything from sports cleats to running shoes, hiking boots and sports sandals. They even sell booties for SCUBA diving! (9) However, are soccer coach usually buys us cleats so I mostly just go to check out what’s new. They always have the latest products from the best brands at low prices. And if they don’t have the size or style you are looking for, they will order it and have it shipped to the store or to your house, at no extra cost. (10) If your ever in the area, I highly recommend you check this store out. I know you’ll be impressed!

A. Change “complaint” to “complaints.”

B. Change “in store” to “in-store.”

C. Insert a comma after the word “product.”

D. No changes are necessary.

Answer: B

Explanation: A hyphen should be used between two words that modify a succeeding noun and that act as one idea (compound modifiers). For example, the words “high” and “paying” in the phrase “high-paying job.”

Question 9: Read the supporting details then answer the following question. According to the passage, microwaves were originally invented in order to:

Paragraph: The microwave oven did not come about as a result of someone trying to find a better, faster way to cook. During World War II, two scientists invented the magnetron, a tube that produces microwaves. Installing magnetrons in Britain’s radar system, the microwaves were able to spot Nazi warplanes on their way to bomb the British Isles. By accident, several years later, it was discovered that microwaves also cook food. Called the Radar Range, the first microwave oven to go on the market was roughly as large and heavy as a refrigerator. The idea of using microwave energy to cook food was accidentally discovered by Percy LeBaron Spencer of the Raytheon Company when he found that radar waves had melted a candy bar in his pocket. Experiments showed that microwave heating could raise the internal temperature of many foods far more rapidly than a conventional oven.

A. Cook food faster

B. Replace the refrigerator

C. Spot Nazi warplanes

D. Tan women’s skin

Answer: C

Explanation: Microwaves were originally invented in order to spot Nazi warplanes during World War II. The passage’s first paragraph explains that the microwave was not invented as a result of someone trying to cook food faster, even though that is what most people commonly think. The passage did not state that the microwave was invented to replace the refrigerator; it stated that the first microwaves were as big as a refrigerator.

Question 10: Read the supporting details then answer the following question. The author’s purpose for writing this passage is to:

Paragraph: A tumor is a mass of tissue that’s formed by an accumulation of abnormal cells. Normally, the cells in your body age, die, and are replaced by new cells. With cancer and other tumors, something disrupts this cycle. Tumor cells grow, even though the body does not need them, and unlike normal old cells, they don’t die. As this process goes on, the tumor continues to grow as more and more cells are added to the mass. Primary brain tumors emerge from the various cells that make up the brain and central nervous system and are named for the kind of cell in which they first form. The most common types of adult brain tumors are gliomas and astrocytic tumors. These tumors form from astrocytes and other types of glial cells, which are cells that help keep nerves healthy. Benign brain tumors are noncancerous. Malignant primary brain tumors are cancers that originate in the brain, typically grow faster than benign tumors, and aggressively invade surrounding tissue. Although brain cancer rarely spreads to other organs, it will spread to other parts of the brain and central nervous system.

A. Endorse

B. Inform

C. Instruct

D. Persuade

Answer: B

Explanation: The author’s purpose for writing this passage is to inform the reader about tumors. You can identify that the author is informing you about tumors because he or she tells you what causes them, how they form, and which ones are cancerous. The author is not instructing the reader on how to do something, persuading the reader to do something, or endorsing a product for the reader to purchase; therefore, the other options can all be eliminated.

Best GED Language Arts Practice Test
Best GED Language Arts Practice Test

 

GED Reasoning Through Language Arts Test

Reading comprehension (literacy), writing, and grammar are three parts of the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts test. This test lasts for 150 minutes (2.5 hours), and there is a 10 minutes break between parts 2 and 3. You have 35 minutes to finish part 1, 60 minutes to finish part 3, and 45 minutes to write your essay (extended response) in part 2. The types of questions on the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts test are various, it can be multiple-choice, short-answer, draggable, select an area, hot spot, and more. 

Section 1: Reading Comprehension (Literacy)

In this section, you will have to read texts that usually have 450-900 words, then you must answer questions based on the texts. There are two types of materials that you will read on the RLA test. The first one is information text which accounts for up to 75% of the test questions, are the text from the workplace and non-fictional content. The second one is literacy text which accounts for 25% of the test. To be able to answer the question, you need to read, analyze, and apply the information from the texts. 

Section 2: Extended Response (GED Essay)

After completing the Reading Comprehension section, you can begin with the “Extended Response” (GED Essay). In this section, you will be given two or more passages with opposing views on a current issue. You are asked to read these passages carefully, analyze them, and then determine which position is best supported. After that, you must be able to use evidence from the passages to support your choices while you’re writing an essay. You are allowed 45 minutes in total to plan, draft, and edit your essay. To get a high essay score, you must be very clear in writing a thesis statement as well as the introduction. The body of your essay should include four to six paragraphs and have supporting arguments. Finally, you must write the essay’s conclusion to summarize your main points. 

Section 3: Grammar and Language

The Grammar section of the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts test aims to assess your understanding of punctuation rules, pronoun usage, sentence correction, and contextual clues. Should you never choose a longer, more complicated, or wordier replacement when a simple one does. So, take our GED practice tests now to get you ready for the exam. 

Best GED Language Arts Practice Test
Best GED Language Arts Practice Test

 

GED RLA Test – FAQs

Is the GED Language Arts test hard?

Just like other subtests of the GED exam, the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts Test is not typically hard when you study and prepare well for the test. This subtest aims to assess your knowledge and skills in three main areas: how well can you read closely; how well can you write clearly; and how well do you understand and to what extent can you apply standard written English. 

Who is eligible to take the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts Test?

There are some requirements you must meet before you can take the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts Test are: 

  • You must be at least 16 years of age
  • You are not enrolled in high school 
  • You have not graduated from high school
  • You have to meet all of your state’s additional requirements

However, each state enforces different policies, so you should learn more about your state’s testing policies before taking the GED exam. For instance, in the District of Columbia (D.C), if you want to take your GED diploma when you’re not sufficient 16 or 17 years old, you must apply for an age waiver. 

Read more >> GED Language Arts Study Guide 2021

How much is the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts Test?

The testing fees of the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts Test are different between states, but generally, it costs $30 or less. Even, it just costs $3.75 in some states. For more information for specific states, visit the GED official website!

What topics are covered on the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts Test?

The GED Reasoning Through Language Arts Test includes reading for meaning, identifying and creating arguments, and grammar and language. Test-takers will be required to identify the following:

  • Settings, characters, plots, and events
  • Main ideas and supporting details
  • Point of view and purpose
  • Drawing conclusions
  • Data and graph interpretations
  • Sentence structure
  • Transition words
  • Capitalization, punctuation, and apostrophes

How many questions are on the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts Test?

The number of questions on the GED RLA test is different between states, but generally, it has around 46 to 53 questions which vary in types such as multiple-choice, fill in the blank, drop-down, drag-and-drop, and extended-response. 

What do I have to score to pass the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts Test?

You are required to get at least 145 points on a scale of  100-200 points to pass the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts Test. However, some states require you to get at least 150 points to pass the test like New Jersey. 

How many times can I retake the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts Test?

There is no restriction. Generally, if you fail the test, you have two more times to retake it without a waiting period; however, after your third attempt, you must wait 60 days before you can take the test again. Please note that each state has its own policies and waiting period, so you should learn more about your state’s retake policies.

What to expect on the test day?

Though each state has different policies and procedures, there are still some common rules and tips that you can apply on your exam day.

  • You should be at the testing center at least 15 minutes before your exam starts. You might not be able to take the test and lose your test fee if you are more than 15 minutes late. 
  • You have to bring a non-expired photo identification card (license, passport, military ID, state-issued ID)
  • You will receive three erasable note boards and a marker before you enter the testing area.
  • You should look at the test-timer at the top of your computer screen to know how much time you have left to finish your GED RLA test.
  • You are not allowed to bring your personal items including cell phones, handbags, and backpacks to the testing area, so if you bring these items, put them in storage. 

How to study for the GED Reasoning Through Language Arts Test?

If you feel nervous about your GED Reasoning Through Language Arts test, it’s normal. The key to passing any test and getting a high score is knowing clearly the test format and the topics you will be tested on. Therefore, you should study regularly and prepare well before taking the test. Being said that we did all of the work for you, you can find all the necessary information and GED Language Arts practice test 2021 on our website.  There, you can find a comprehensive study guide that covers all four subtests of the GED exam and includes in-depth explanations of the major concepts and test-taking strategies as well. So, to pass your GED Reasoning Through Language Arts test and get a GED diploma, let’s access our website and start your practice tests right now!